I suppose what this illustrates is that, while the CPI does include rent (or “owners equivalent rent”) in its calculation, the equivalent rent is either not representative of the median home, or house prices have grown much faster than rent over the past 75 years… and yet the apparent popularity of being a “real estate investor” seems only to have increased, which suggests to me that the rent/buy ratio has gotten more favorable, not less
None of the above, the disconnect is that median income has risen (much) faster than inflation in the last seven decades. See my comment elsewhere. The whole post is an exercise in failing to recognize confounding variables.
